Indian Polity & Constitution MCQs
Q 1.What is the maximum life of an ordinance promulgated by President of India?
Answer: Correct Answer:B [7.5 months]
Notes: Article 123 of the Indian constitution empowers the President to promulgate ordinances. This mechanism has been devised to enable the executive to deal with a situation that may suddenly and immediately arise when the Parliament is not in session (either one or both houses). As maximum gap between two session of a house can be 6 months therefore maximum life of a ordinance can be 6 months and 6 weeks, which is roughly 7.5 months.
Notes: Article 123 of the Indian constitution empowers the President to promulgate ordinances. This mechanism has been devised to enable the executive to deal with a situation that may suddenly and immediately arise when the Parliament is not in session (either one or both houses). As maximum gap between two session of a house can be 6 months therefore maximum life of a ordinance can be 6 months and 6 weeks, which is roughly 7.5 months.
Q 2.Jatiya Sangsad is the parliament of which among the following countries?
Answer: Correct Answer:C [Bangladesh]
Notes: Jatiya Sangsad, also known as the National Parliament of Bangladesh, is the supreme legislative body of the country. It consists of 350 members who are elected by the people and are responsible for making and amending laws. The Jatiya Sangsad is headed by the Speaker, who is chosen by the members of parliament. The parliament is located in the capital city of Dhaka.
Notes: Jatiya Sangsad, also known as the National Parliament of Bangladesh, is the supreme legislative body of the country. It consists of 350 members who are elected by the people and are responsible for making and amending laws. The Jatiya Sangsad is headed by the Speaker, who is chosen by the members of parliament. The parliament is located in the capital city of Dhaka.
Q 3.Who among the following was the first chairman of UPSC?
Answer: Correct Answer:A [Sir Ross Barker]
Notes: First Public Service Commission was established on October 1, 1926 under the Chairmanship of Sir Ross Barker.UPSC is constitutional body which conducts the prestigious civil services examination to select IAS, IFS and IPS officers among others. It has been established under Article 315 of the Constitution and consists of a Chairman and ten Members; appointed and removed by President. The chairman and members of the Commission hold office for a term if six years or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier
Notes: First Public Service Commission was established on October 1, 1926 under the Chairmanship of Sir Ross Barker.UPSC is constitutional body which conducts the prestigious civil services examination to select IAS, IFS and IPS officers among others. It has been established under Article 315 of the Constitution and consists of a Chairman and ten Members; appointed and removed by President. The chairman and members of the Commission hold office for a term if six years or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier
Q 4.The chairman of the Committee on Public Accounts is nominated by which among the following?
Answer: Correct Answer:B [Lok Sabha Speaker]
Notes: Public Accounts Committee (PAC) is one of the standing parliamentary committees, which was first established in 1921 under the Government of India Act 1919 provisions. This committee examines the manners and results of spending the public funds.Public Accounts Committee has 22 members of which 15 are from Lok Sabha while 7 from Rajya Sabha. The members are “elected” by members of Parliament amongst themselves via a system of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote; so that all parties get due representation in it. Members are elected for a period of one year. A minister cannot be a member of PAC.Chairman of PAC is appointed by Speaker from its members. The chairman used to be of ruling party till mid 1960s, however, now the chairman of PAC is from opposition by convention.
Notes: Public Accounts Committee (PAC) is one of the standing parliamentary committees, which was first established in 1921 under the Government of India Act 1919 provisions. This committee examines the manners and results of spending the public funds.Public Accounts Committee has 22 members of which 15 are from Lok Sabha while 7 from Rajya Sabha. The members are “elected” by members of Parliament amongst themselves via a system of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote; so that all parties get due representation in it. Members are elected for a period of one year. A minister cannot be a member of PAC.Chairman of PAC is appointed by Speaker from its members. The chairman used to be of ruling party till mid 1960s, however, now the chairman of PAC is from opposition by convention.
Q 5.Who make the electoral college for election of the Vice President of India?
Answer: Correct Answer:A [Only members of Parliament]
Notes: Like Presidential election, election of vice president is held via system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote {indirect election}. However, Vice President is elected by Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha MPs. The MLAs or MLCs have no role to play here. This sounds to be an anomaly but it is justified by giving logic that Vice President works as president of the whole country in rare occasions when President is not available. In normal circumstances, his work is to preside the Rajya Sabha.
Notes: Like Presidential election, election of vice president is held via system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote {indirect election}. However, Vice President is elected by Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha MPs. The MLAs or MLCs have no role to play here. This sounds to be an anomaly but it is justified by giving logic that Vice President works as president of the whole country in rare occasions when President is not available. In normal circumstances, his work is to preside the Rajya Sabha.
Q 6.At the time of commencement of Indian constitution, the all states of Union of India were put in four parts A, B, C, D, later reorganized and reduced to 2 categories ‘states and union territories’ in 1956. Which of the following was only one member of D?
Answer: Correct Answer:D [Andaman & Nicobar Islands]
Notes: The constitution of 1950 had provided for three main types of states and a class of territories:Part A states, which were the former governors’ provinces of British India, were ruled by a governor appointed by the president and an elected state legislature. The nine Part A states were Assam, Bihar, Bombay, Madhya Pradesh (formerly Central Provinces and Berar), Madras, Orissa, Punjab (formerly East Punjab), Uttar Pradesh (formerly the United Provinces), and West Bengal.Part B states, which were former princely states or groups of princely states, governed by a rajpramukh, who was usually the ruler of a constituent state, and an elected legislature. The rajpramukh was appointed by the President of India. The eight Part B states were Hyderabad, Jammu and Kashmir, Madhya Bharat, Mysore, Patiala and East Punjab States Union (PEPSU), Rajasthan, Saurashtra, and Travancore-Cochin.Part C states included both the former chief commissioners’ provinces and some princely states, and each was governed by a chief commissioner appointed by the President of India. The ten Part C states were Ajmer, Bhopal, Bilaspur, Coorg, Delhi, Himachal Pradesh, Cutch, Manipur, Tripura, and Vindhya Pradesh.The sole Part D territory was the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, which were administered by a lieutenant governor appointed by the central government.
Notes: The constitution of 1950 had provided for three main types of states and a class of territories:Part A states, which were the former governors’ provinces of British India, were ruled by a governor appointed by the president and an elected state legislature. The nine Part A states were Assam, Bihar, Bombay, Madhya Pradesh (formerly Central Provinces and Berar), Madras, Orissa, Punjab (formerly East Punjab), Uttar Pradesh (formerly the United Provinces), and West Bengal.Part B states, which were former princely states or groups of princely states, governed by a rajpramukh, who was usually the ruler of a constituent state, and an elected legislature. The rajpramukh was appointed by the President of India. The eight Part B states were Hyderabad, Jammu and Kashmir, Madhya Bharat, Mysore, Patiala and East Punjab States Union (PEPSU), Rajasthan, Saurashtra, and Travancore-Cochin.Part C states included both the former chief commissioners’ provinces and some princely states, and each was governed by a chief commissioner appointed by the President of India. The ten Part C states were Ajmer, Bhopal, Bilaspur, Coorg, Delhi, Himachal Pradesh, Cutch, Manipur, Tripura, and Vindhya Pradesh.The sole Part D territory was the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, which were administered by a lieutenant governor appointed by the central government.
Q 7.Economic and social planning comes under which of the following?
Answer: Correct Answer:C [Concurrent List]
Notes: Economic & Social planning is listed on 20 in the Concurrent list in 7th schedule of India.
Notes: Economic & Social planning is listed on 20 in the Concurrent list in 7th schedule of India.
Q 8.The power to create of abolish legislative council in states is vested with which among the following?
Answer: Correct Answer:C [Legislative assembly of the state]
Notes: Legislative assembly of the state make recommendations and parliament makes necessary laws for this
Notes: Legislative assembly of the state make recommendations and parliament makes necessary laws for this
Q 9.The term Vote on account in the parliamentary terminology is used in context of following?
Answer: Correct Answer:D [Short expenditures of revenues]
Notes: The term “Vote on Account” in parliamentary terminology is used in the context of [D] Short expenditures of revenues.A Vote on Account is a provision made by the government to secure funds for a limited period to meet essential and urgent expenditures when the full budget for the financial year has not been passed by the Parliament. It allows the government to withdraw money from the Consolidated Fund of India to cover expenses like salaries, ongoing programs, and other essential government functions until the full budget is approved.This interim arrangement ensures that the government can continue its operations and services without disruption even if the detailed budget proposals are still under discussion and approval in the Parliament. Once the full budget is passed, the Vote on Account is replaced by the Appropriation Bill, which contains the detailed allocation of funds for various government activities.
Notes: The term “Vote on Account” in parliamentary terminology is used in the context of [D] Short expenditures of revenues.A Vote on Account is a provision made by the government to secure funds for a limited period to meet essential and urgent expenditures when the full budget for the financial year has not been passed by the Parliament. It allows the government to withdraw money from the Consolidated Fund of India to cover expenses like salaries, ongoing programs, and other essential government functions until the full budget is approved.This interim arrangement ensures that the government can continue its operations and services without disruption even if the detailed budget proposals are still under discussion and approval in the Parliament. Once the full budget is passed, the Vote on Account is replaced by the Appropriation Bill, which contains the detailed allocation of funds for various government activities.
Q 10.Which among the following was the first state in India to constitute an institution of Lokayukta?
Answer: Correct Answer:C [Maharashtra]
Notes: Maharashtra was the first state in India to establish the Lokayukta institution in 1971: When The Lokayukta and Upa-Lokayuktas Act was enacted in 1971, and the institution came into effect on October 25, 1972. Why The act was established in response to recommendations from the Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC), which was set up in 1966 to review India’s public administration system. What The Lokayukta is a state-level anti-corruption agency that addresses public grievances about corruption, nepotism, and other maladministration. The Lokayukta is independent of the state’s political and public administration.
Notes: Maharashtra was the first state in India to establish the Lokayukta institution in 1971: When The Lokayukta and Upa-Lokayuktas Act was enacted in 1971, and the institution came into effect on October 25, 1972. Why The act was established in response to recommendations from the Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC), which was set up in 1966 to review India’s public administration system. What The Lokayukta is a state-level anti-corruption agency that addresses public grievances about corruption, nepotism, and other maladministration. The Lokayukta is independent of the state’s political and public administration.
Q 11.Which one of the following is part of Preamble of the Constitution of India?
Answer: Correct Answer:A [We, the people of India, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic. do hereby Adopt, Enact and Give to ourselves this Constitution]
Notes: TEXT TO THE PREAMBLE:We, the people of India, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a SOVEREIGN, SOCIALIST, SECULAR, DEMOCRATIC, REPUBLIC and to secure to all of its citizens;• JUSTICE social, economic and political• LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship• EQUALITY of status and of opportunity and to promote among them all• FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the nation• In our Constituent Assembly, this 26th day of November, 1949, do HEREBY ADOPT, ENACT AND GIVE TO OURSELVES THIS CONSTITUTION
Notes: TEXT TO THE PREAMBLE:We, the people of India, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a SOVEREIGN, SOCIALIST, SECULAR, DEMOCRATIC, REPUBLIC and to secure to all of its citizens;• JUSTICE social, economic and political• LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship• EQUALITY of status and of opportunity and to promote among them all• FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the nation• In our Constituent Assembly, this 26th day of November, 1949, do HEREBY ADOPT, ENACT AND GIVE TO OURSELVES THIS CONSTITUTION
Q 12.Of the following, with which does Article 78 of the Constitution deal with ?(1) Emergency powers of the President(2) The Prime Minister’s duty regarding keeping the President informed about the government’s decisions, policies and actions(3) The President’s power to send advisory messages to the Parliament(4) The President’s power to get information from the Council of Ministers
Answer: Correct Answer:D [2 only]
Notes: Article 78 of the Constitution deal with the Prime Minister’s duty regarding keeping the President informed about the government’s decisions, policies and actions.
Notes: Article 78 of the Constitution deal with the Prime Minister’s duty regarding keeping the President informed about the government’s decisions, policies and actions.
Q 13.Which of the following is incorrect about Indian Independence Act?
Answer: Correct Answer:D [ British monarch retained his right to veto bills for certain period ]
Notes: The British monarch was deprived of his right to veto bills or ask for reservation of certain bills for his approval after this act.
Notes: The British monarch was deprived of his right to veto bills or ask for reservation of certain bills for his approval after this act.
Q 14.How many sessions did Constituent Assembly take to draft the Constitution of India?
Answer: Correct Answer:B [11]
Notes: Constituent Assembly held total 11 sessions over the course of two years, 11 months and 18 days. The Constitution makers had gone through the Constitutions of about 60 countries to draft the Constitution of India.
Notes: Constituent Assembly held total 11 sessions over the course of two years, 11 months and 18 days. The Constitution makers had gone through the Constitutions of about 60 countries to draft the Constitution of India.
Q 15.Which of the following Commissions accepted language as the basis of reorganization of States?
Answer: Correct Answer:C [ Fazl Ali Commission ]
Notes: The Fazl Ali Commission accepted language as the basis of reorganization of States. But it rejected the theory of one language one State. It suggested for the creation of 16 States and 3 Uts.
Notes: The Fazl Ali Commission accepted language as the basis of reorganization of States. But it rejected the theory of one language one State. It suggested for the creation of 16 States and 3 Uts.
Q 16.The illegal migrants of which country are not eligible for citizenship under Citizenship Amendment Act 2019?
Answer: Correct Answer:A [Myanmar]
Notes: Under the new Citizenship Amendment Act 2019 the illegal migrants who are Hindus, Sikhs, Buddhists, Parsis and Christians from Afghanistan, Bangladesh and Pakistan are eligible for citizenship.
Notes: Under the new Citizenship Amendment Act 2019 the illegal migrants who are Hindus, Sikhs, Buddhists, Parsis and Christians from Afghanistan, Bangladesh and Pakistan are eligible for citizenship.
Q 17.Who called the parliamentary system as ‘cabinet system’?
Answer: Correct Answer:B [Ivor Jennings]
Notes: It was Ivor Jennings who called the parliamentary system as ‘cabinet system’ because the cabinet is the nucleus of power in a parliamentary system. Ivor Jennings was a British Lawyer and an academician.
Notes: It was Ivor Jennings who called the parliamentary system as ‘cabinet system’ because the cabinet is the nucleus of power in a parliamentary system. Ivor Jennings was a British Lawyer and an academician.
Q 18.Which of the following are the conditions in which Chief Minister of a State is not eligible to vote in the Presidential election?
Answer: Correct Answer:B [If he is a member of the upper house of the state legislature]
Notes: The Article 54 of the Constitution provides that the president shall be elected by an electoral college consisting the elected members of both the houses of Parliament and the elected member of the legislative assemblies of the state. Upper house of the state is not entitled to votes.
Notes: The Article 54 of the Constitution provides that the president shall be elected by an electoral college consisting the elected members of both the houses of Parliament and the elected member of the legislative assemblies of the state. Upper house of the state is not entitled to votes.
Q 19.Which of the following statements are correct with respect to the role of cabinet?
Answer: Correct Answer:D [All of the above]
Notes: All the statements are correct with respect to the role of cabinet. It is the highest decision-making authority and also the chief policy formulating body of the Central government. It is chief coordinator of Central administration.
Notes: All the statements are correct with respect to the role of cabinet. It is the highest decision-making authority and also the chief policy formulating body of the Central government. It is chief coordinator of Central administration.
Q 20.What the minimum age for a person seeking election to the Lok Sabha?
Answer: Correct Answer:C [25 years]
Notes: The minimum age of a person seeking election to the Lok Sabha (House of People) according to Artcle 84 (1) (b) is not less than 25 years of age. And for Rajya Sabha it is not less than 30 years of age.
Notes: The minimum age of a person seeking election to the Lok Sabha (House of People) according to Artcle 84 (1) (b) is not less than 25 years of age. And for Rajya Sabha it is not less than 30 years of age.
Q 21.Who is empowered to revoke President’s Rule?
Answer: Correct Answer:A [The President]
Notes: According to the Constitution of India a proclamation of President’s Rule may be revoked by the President at any time by a subsequent proclamation. A proclamation for revocation does not require the parliamentary approval.
Notes: According to the Constitution of India a proclamation of President’s Rule may be revoked by the President at any time by a subsequent proclamation. A proclamation for revocation does not require the parliamentary approval.
Q 22.Who hoped that the drastic power conferred by Article 356 would remain a ‘deadletter’?
Answer: Correct Answer:C [B.R. Ambedkar]
Notes: It was the drafting committee chairman Dr. B.R. Ambedkar who hoped that the drastic power conferred by Article 356 would remain a ‘deadletter’. He hoped that it would be used only as a measure of last resort.
Notes: It was the drafting committee chairman Dr. B.R. Ambedkar who hoped that the drastic power conferred by Article 356 would remain a ‘deadletter’. He hoped that it would be used only as a measure of last resort.
Q 23.On whose advice President’s Rule is imposed in a State?
Answer: Correct Answer:D [Governor]
Notes: Under Article 356 of the Constitution of India, the President’s Rule is imposed by the President of on the recommendation of the Governor of the State. The president can act either on a report of the governor of the state or otherwise too.
Notes: Under Article 356 of the Constitution of India, the President’s Rule is imposed by the President of on the recommendation of the Governor of the State. The president can act either on a report of the governor of the state or otherwise too.
Q 24.What are the powers of the Governor with respect to the state election commissioner?
Answer: Correct Answer:B [He decides the tenure of the office of state election commissioner]
Notes: A Governor appoints the state election commissioner and determines the conditions of his service and tenure of the office. But with regards to the removal from office, the state election commissioner can be removed only on the grounds as that of a judge of a high court.
Notes: A Governor appoints the state election commissioner and determines the conditions of his service and tenure of the office. But with regards to the removal from office, the state election commissioner can be removed only on the grounds as that of a judge of a high court.
Q 25.Who administers oath to every member of either House of state legislature?
Answer: Correct Answer:D [Governor]
Notes: Every member of both the Houses of state legislature, before taking his seat in the House, has to make and subscribe an oath or affirmation before the governor of the state or some person appointed by him for this purpose specifically.
Notes: Every member of both the Houses of state legislature, before taking his seat in the House, has to make and subscribe an oath or affirmation before the governor of the state or some person appointed by him for this purpose specifically.
Q 26.Which of the following persons are eligible for getting free legal services?1. Women and children2. Members of SC/ST3. Farmers whose annual income does not exceed 5 lakhs.Select the correct option from the codes given below:
Answer: Correct Answer:C [Only 1 & 2]
Notes: The following persons are eligible for getting free legal services: (i) Women and children, (ii) Members of SC/ST, (iii) Industrial workmen, (iv) Victims of mass disaster, violence, flood, drought, earthquake, industrial disaster, (v) Disabled persons, (vi) Persons in custody, (vii) Persons whose annual income does not exceed ₹1 lakh , (viii) Victims of trafficking in human beings or beggar.
Notes: The following persons are eligible for getting free legal services: (i) Women and children, (ii) Members of SC/ST, (iii) Industrial workmen, (iv) Victims of mass disaster, violence, flood, drought, earthquake, industrial disaster, (v) Disabled persons, (vi) Persons in custody, (vii) Persons whose annual income does not exceed ₹1 lakh , (viii) Victims of trafficking in human beings or beggar.
Q 27.Which of the following can be members of Gram Sabha?
Answer: Correct Answer:B [Registered voters in the area of a panchayat]
Notes: Gram Sabha is a body consisting of persons registered in the electoral rolls of a village which is comprised within the area of Panchayatat the village level. It is a village assembly consisting of all the registered voters in the area of a panchayat.
Notes: Gram Sabha is a body consisting of persons registered in the electoral rolls of a village which is comprised within the area of Panchayatat the village level. It is a village assembly consisting of all the registered voters in the area of a panchayat.
Q 28.Who constitutes the finance commission to review the financial position of the panchayats?
Answer: Correct Answer:B [Governor]
Notes: The governor of a state is empowered to constitute a finance commission to review the financial position of the panchayats in the state after every five years. It suggests the measures needed to improve the financial position of the panchayats.
Notes: The governor of a state is empowered to constitute a finance commission to review the financial position of the panchayats in the state after every five years. It suggests the measures needed to improve the financial position of the panchayats.
Q 29.In which year was the first commission to report on the administration of the scheduled areas and the welfare of the scheduled tribes in the state constituted?
Answer: Correct Answer:B [1960]
Notes: In the year 1960 the first commission to report on the administration of the scheduled areas and the welfare of the scheduled tribes in the state was constituted by the President of India.
Notes: In the year 1960 the first commission to report on the administration of the scheduled areas and the welfare of the scheduled tribes in the state was constituted by the President of India.
Q 30.In which year was the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India established?
Answer: Correct Answer:B [1997]
Notes: The Telecom Regulatory Authority of India established in the year 1997. It’s purpose is to regulate telecom services, including fixation/revision of tariffs for telecom services which were earlier vested in the Central Government.
Notes: The Telecom Regulatory Authority of India established in the year 1997. It’s purpose is to regulate telecom services, including fixation/revision of tariffs for telecom services which were earlier vested in the Central Government.
Q 31.What are the factors which are taken into consideration while constituting Zonal Councils?1. natural divisions of the country2. river systems and means of communication3. cultural and linguistic affinity4. requirements of economic development, security and law and orderSelect the correct option from the codes given below:
Answer: Correct Answer:D [All of the above]
Notes: Several factors have been taken into consideration while forming zonal councils. These include: the natural divisions in the country, the river systems and means of communication in the country, the cultural and linguistic affinity and the requirements of economic development, security and law and order of the different regions of the country.
Notes: Several factors have been taken into consideration while forming zonal councils. These include: the natural divisions in the country, the river systems and means of communication in the country, the cultural and linguistic affinity and the requirements of economic development, security and law and order of the different regions of the country.
Q 32.Which Articles of the Indian Constitution contain the Emergency Provisions?
Answer: Correct Answer:B [Articles 352 to 360]
Notes: The Part XVIII of the Constitution of India contains Emergency Provisions from Articles 352 to 360. These provisions help the Central government in dealing with any abnormal situation effectively.
Notes: The Part XVIII of the Constitution of India contains Emergency Provisions from Articles 352 to 360. These provisions help the Central government in dealing with any abnormal situation effectively.
Q 33.In which year was the Family Courts Act enacted in India?
Answer: Correct Answer:B [1984]
Notes: The Family Courts Act was enacted in India in the year 1984. The primary intention of the act was to safeguard the institution of marriage and to promote the welfare of the family. This act is distinct as it saves marital relationships and promotes harmony. It prioritizes conciliation by settling disputes related to marriage and family affairs promptly and amicably.
Notes: The Family Courts Act was enacted in India in the year 1984. The primary intention of the act was to safeguard the institution of marriage and to promote the welfare of the family. This act is distinct as it saves marital relationships and promotes harmony. It prioritizes conciliation by settling disputes related to marriage and family affairs promptly and amicably.
Q 34.Whose prior recommendation is mandatory for grant of concession for the exploitation of minor minerals by auction under PESA Act?
Answer: Correct Answer:D [Gram Sabha]
Notes: The prior recommendation of the Gram Sabha or the Panchayats at the appropriate level shall be mandatory for grantof concession for the exploitation of minor minerals by auction according to the PESA Act.
Notes: The prior recommendation of the Gram Sabha or the Panchayats at the appropriate level shall be mandatory for grantof concession for the exploitation of minor minerals by auction according to the PESA Act.
Q 35.Who is empowered to declare an area to be a scheduled area?
Answer: Correct Answer:A [President]
Notes: The president of India is empowered to declare an area to be a scheduled area. The President can also increase or decrease its area, alter its boundary lines, revoke such designation or make fresh orders for such redesignation on an area in consultation with the governor of the state concerned.
Notes: The president of India is empowered to declare an area to be a scheduled area. The President can also increase or decrease its area, alter its boundary lines, revoke such designation or make fresh orders for such redesignation on an area in consultation with the governor of the state concerned.
Q 36.When was the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal established?
Answer: Correct Answer:B [1941]
Notes: The Income Tax Appellate Tribunal is a quasi judicial institution set up in January, 1941 and specializes in dealing with appeals under the Direct Taxes Acts.
Notes: The Income Tax Appellate Tribunal is a quasi judicial institution set up in January, 1941 and specializes in dealing with appeals under the Direct Taxes Acts.
Q 37.Who is empowered to remove the chairperson or any member of National Human Rights Commission on the ground of proved misbehaviouror incapacity?
Answer: Correct Answer:D [President]
Notes: The president of India can remove the chairperson or any member of National Human Rights Commission on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity. However, the president has to refer the matter to the Supreme Court for an inquiry.
Notes: The president of India can remove the chairperson or any member of National Human Rights Commission on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity. However, the president has to refer the matter to the Supreme Court for an inquiry.
Q 38.The Election Commission advises which of the following on matters relating to the disqualifications of the members of state legislature?
Answer: Correct Answer:A [Governor]
Notes: The Election Commission of India advises the governor of the state on matters relating to the disqualifications of the members of the state legislature. It also advises the president of India on matters relating to the disqualifications of the members of Parliament.
Notes: The Election Commission of India advises the governor of the state on matters relating to the disqualifications of the members of the state legislature. It also advises the president of India on matters relating to the disqualifications of the members of Parliament.
Q 39.Who appoints the Chief Information Commissioner of the Central Information Commission?
Answer: Correct Answer:C [President]
Notes: Chief Information Commissioner & other members of the Central Information Commission are appointed by the President of India on the recommendation of a committee consisting of the Prime Minister as Chairperson, the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha and a Union Cabinet Minister.
Notes: Chief Information Commissioner & other members of the Central Information Commission are appointed by the President of India on the recommendation of a committee consisting of the Prime Minister as Chairperson, the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha and a Union Cabinet Minister.
Q 40.In which year was the Whistle Blowers Protection Act enacted?
Answer: Correct Answer:B [2014]
Notes: The Whistle Blowers Protection Act was enacted in the year 2014. It provides a mechanism for protecting the identity of whistle blowers (a term given to people who expose corruption).
Notes: The Whistle Blowers Protection Act was enacted in the year 2014. It provides a mechanism for protecting the identity of whistle blowers (a term given to people who expose corruption).
Q 41.Which are the two non-permanent Houses in the Parliamentary setup of India?
Answer: Correct Answer:D [The Lok Sabha and Vidhan Sabha]
Notes: In Indian constitutional set up, the lower houses of Parliament and State legislatures (Lok Sabha and Vidhan Sabha) are considered as non-permanent as they exist for a certain period and are subject to dissolution. However, the upper Houses (Rajya Sabha and Vidhan Parishad) are permanent as it is not subject to dissolution; its members retire after a certain period.
Notes: In Indian constitutional set up, the lower houses of Parliament and State legislatures (Lok Sabha and Vidhan Sabha) are considered as non-permanent as they exist for a certain period and are subject to dissolution. However, the upper Houses (Rajya Sabha and Vidhan Parishad) are permanent as it is not subject to dissolution; its members retire after a certain period.
Q 42.Which one of the following Union Territories has been granted with partial statehoodship?
Answer: Correct Answer:A [Puducherry]
Notes: Delhi and Puducherry were given partial statehood and Delhi was redefined as the National Capital Territory of Delhi (NCT) and incorporated into a larger area known as the National Capital Region (India) (NCR). Delhi, Puducherry and Jammu & Kashmir have an elected legislative assembly and an executive council of ministers with partially state-like function.
Notes: Delhi and Puducherry were given partial statehood and Delhi was redefined as the National Capital Territory of Delhi (NCT) and incorporated into a larger area known as the National Capital Region (India) (NCR). Delhi, Puducherry and Jammu & Kashmir have an elected legislative assembly and an executive council of ministers with partially state-like function.
Q 43.The members of the All India Services serve __:
Answer: Correct Answer:D [Both the Union and State Governments]
Notes: The All India Services comprises Civil Services of India, namely the Indian Administrative Service, the Indian Forest Service and the Indian Police Service. A common unique feature of the All India Services is that the members of these services are recruited by the Union government, but their services are placed under various State cadres, and they have the liability to serve both under the State and under the Centre.
Notes: The All India Services comprises Civil Services of India, namely the Indian Administrative Service, the Indian Forest Service and the Indian Police Service. A common unique feature of the All India Services is that the members of these services are recruited by the Union government, but their services are placed under various State cadres, and they have the liability to serve both under the State and under the Centre.
Q 44.Which one of the following is related to Advisory Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?
Answer: Correct Answer:D [President of India seeks opinion on law or facts]
Notes: The Supreme Court has special advisory jurisdiction in matters which may specifically be referred to it by the President of India under Article 143 of the Constitution. The Supreme Court “advises” the President by answering the query put before it. The advice given by the Supreme Court is not binding on the President, nor is it “law declared by the Supreme Court”, hence not binding on subordinate courts.
Notes: The Supreme Court has special advisory jurisdiction in matters which may specifically be referred to it by the President of India under Article 143 of the Constitution. The Supreme Court “advises” the President by answering the query put before it. The advice given by the Supreme Court is not binding on the President, nor is it “law declared by the Supreme Court”, hence not binding on subordinate courts.
Q 45.Article 41 of the Indian Constitution “Right to work, to education and to public assistance in certain cases” deals with :
Answer: Correct Answer:B [the Directive Principles of State Policy]
Notes: Article 41 is a Directive Principle of State Policy under Part IV of Indian constitution. It states that the State shall make effective provision for securing the right to work, to education and to public assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness and disablement, and in other cases of undeserved want.
Notes: Article 41 is a Directive Principle of State Policy under Part IV of Indian constitution. It states that the State shall make effective provision for securing the right to work, to education and to public assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness and disablement, and in other cases of undeserved want.
Q 46.Which Amendment of the Indian Constitution inserted the two words – ‘Socialist’ and ‘Secular’ in the Preamble ?
Answer: Correct Answer:C [42nd]
Notes: The Forty-second Amendment of the Constitution of India, enacted in 1976, declared India to be a socialist and secular republic, and as securing fraternity assuring the unity “and integrity” of the Nation, by adding these words to the Preamble of the Constitution of India.
Notes: The Forty-second Amendment of the Constitution of India, enacted in 1976, declared India to be a socialist and secular republic, and as securing fraternity assuring the unity “and integrity” of the Nation, by adding these words to the Preamble of the Constitution of India.
Q 47.The Mandal Commission Report pertains to__:
Answer: Correct Answer:A [Other Backward Classes]
Notes: The Mandal Commission was established in India in 1979 to identify who qualified as an “other backward class.” In its report in 1980, it affirmed the affirmative action practice under Indian law whereby members of lower castes (Other Backward Classes), Scheduled Castes (SC) and Scheduled Tribes (ST were given exclusive access to a certain portion of government jobs and slots in public universities, and recommended changes to these quotas, increasing them by 27% to 49.5%.
Notes: The Mandal Commission was established in India in 1979 to identify who qualified as an “other backward class.” In its report in 1980, it affirmed the affirmative action practice under Indian law whereby members of lower castes (Other Backward Classes), Scheduled Castes (SC) and Scheduled Tribes (ST were given exclusive access to a certain portion of government jobs and slots in public universities, and recommended changes to these quotas, increasing them by 27% to 49.5%.
Q 48.______ is a system of government in which the power is divided between a central authority and various constituent units of the country.
Answer: Correct Answer:C [Federalism]
Notes: Federalism is a system of government in which the power is divided between a central authority and various constituent units of the country. Usually, a federation has two levels of government: a government for the entire country and governments at the level of provinces or states. Both these levels of governments enjoy their power independent of the other.
Notes: Federalism is a system of government in which the power is divided between a central authority and various constituent units of the country. Usually, a federation has two levels of government: a government for the entire country and governments at the level of provinces or states. Both these levels of governments enjoy their power independent of the other.
Q 49.Which section of the Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita addresses the issue of Deceitful Promise of Marriage?
Answer: Correct Answer:B [Section 69]
Notes: Section 69 of the Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita addresses the issue of Deceitful Promise of Marriage. It criminalizes engaging in sexual relations under a false promise of marriage, addressing concerns related to exploitation and deceit. This provision aims to protect individuals from being misled into consensual sexual activities based on fraudulent commitments, emphasizing the importance of trust and transparency in relationships.
Notes: Section 69 of the Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita addresses the issue of Deceitful Promise of Marriage. It criminalizes engaging in sexual relations under a false promise of marriage, addressing concerns related to exploitation and deceit. This provision aims to protect individuals from being misled into consensual sexual activities based on fraudulent commitments, emphasizing the importance of trust and transparency in relationships.
Q 50.Which section of the Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita deals with organized crime?
Answer: Correct Answer:B [Section 111]
Notes: Section 111 of the Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita (Indian Penal Code) defines organized crime and prescribes penalties for such activities. Organized crime includes offenses like extortion, financial fraud, and contract killings. Penalties range from life imprisonment to death for offences resulting in death. This section is crucial in maintaining law and order and deterring individuals from engaging in organized crime.
Notes: Section 111 of the Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita (Indian Penal Code) defines organized crime and prescribes penalties for such activities. Organized crime includes offenses like extortion, financial fraud, and contract killings. Penalties range from life imprisonment to death for offences resulting in death. This section is crucial in maintaining law and order and deterring individuals from engaging in organized crime.
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